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Our pass-guaranteed physician assistant board review courses gets you prepared for PA boards fast, thanks to our constantly updated physician assistant review questions, detailed answer explanations, and intelligent PA board exam simulators. Plus, our online PANCE / PANRE board review course keeps serving you after exams too. PANCE or PANRE, Physician Assistant board review has never been so easy, effective, or efficient. It's more than just the best physician assistant question bank, it's lifelong physician assistant education and AAPA MOC convenience.

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2600+ Physician Assistant Exam Review Questions

High-Yield Physician Assistant exam practice questions mapped to the PANCE / PANRE exam blueprints.

Using authoritative resources, our physician assistant editors ensure our PA exam review courses are always current and cover the latest NCCPA exam blueprints. Med-Challenger's PANCE / PANRE and CAQ-EM Board Review courses are 100% pass-guaranteed and used by GME programs and healthcare organizations world-wide.

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Physician Assistant Course Information

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Post-Rotation Exams

Post-Rotation Exam - Allergy/Immunology
Post-Rotation Exam - Cardiology
Post-Rotation Exam - Dermatology
Post-Rotation Exam - EENT
Post-Rotation Exam - Emergency Medicine
Post-Rotation Exam - Family Medicine
Post-Rotation Exam - Geriatrics
Post-Rotation Exam - Internal Medicine
Post-Rotation Exam - OBGYN
Post-Rotation Exam - Orthopedics
Post-Rotation Exam - Pediatrics
Post-Rotation Exam - Psychiatry
Post-Rotation Exam - Surgery
Post-Rotation Exam - Underserved Care
Post-Rotation Exam - Urgent Care

CME Bank - Signs, Symptoms, and Presentations (AAPA Credit)

Abdominal Pain
Acute Pelvic Pain in Women
Acute Vaginal Bleeding
Back Pain
Chest Pain
Confusion
Constipation
Cyanosis
Depressed Consciousness and Coma
Diarrhea
Dizziness and Vertigo
Dyspnea
Fever in the Adult Patient
Gastrointestinal Bleeding
Headache: Initial Approach
Hemoptysis
Jaundice
Nausea and Vomiting
Seizures: Initial Approach
Syncope
Weakness

CME Bank - Allergy/Immunology

Auto-Immune Collagen Vascular Disorders
Drug Allergy
Food Allergy
Hypersensitivity Reactions
Pediatric Allergy and Immunology
Primary Immunodeficiency Disorders
The Immunocompromised / Solid-Organ Transplant Patient

CME Bank - Cardiovascular System

Congenital Heart Disease in the Adult
Congestive Heart Failure
Dysrhythmias/Conduction Defects
Endocarditis
Hypertension
Ischemic Heart Disease
Myocardial Disease
Pediatric Cardiovascular Disease
Pericardial Disease
Valvular Heart Disease
Vascular Disease

CME Bank - Dermatology

Acne/Rosacea
Cancers of the Skin
Cutaneous Infections
Dermatitis (non-infectious)
Maculopapular Lesions
Papular/Nodular Lesions
Pediatric Dermatology
Ulcerative Lesions
Vesicular / Bullous Lesions

CME Bank - EENT (Eyes, Ears, Nose and Throat) System

Eye: Assessment
Eye: Glaucoma
Eye: Inflammation and Infection
Eye: Pharmacology
Eye: Vascular Disorders
Nose: Infection and Inflammation
Oral Cavity: Medical Disorders
Otologic Infections
Otologic Signs, Symptoms, Presentations
Pediatric Eye, Ear, Nose and Throat Disorders
Throat and Soft Tissue Neck: Medical Disorders

CME Bank - Endocrinology, Metabolism, and Nutrition

Adrenal Disorders
Diabetes Mellitus
Disorders of Calcium Metabolism and Bone
Hypoglycemia
Lipid Disorders
Obesity
Thyroid Disorders
Pediatric Endocrine Disorders

CME Bank - Gastroenterology/Nutritional System

Biliary Tract Disease
Colonic and Anorectal Disease
Esophageal Disorders
Liver Disease
Pancreatic Disease
Pediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders
Small Intestinal Disease
Stomach or Duodenum

CME Bank - Genitourinary System

Acute Renal Failure
Chronic Kidney Disease
Glomerular Disorders
Nephrolithiasis
Pediatric Nephrology and Urology
Penile Disorders
Prostate Disorders
Sexually Transmitted Infections - Male
Testicular Disorders
Urinary Incontinence
Urinary Tract Infections
Water and Electrolyte Balance

CME Bank - Hematology and Oncology

Anemia
Bone Tumors
Breast Cancer
Coagulopathies
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Gastrointestinal or Hepatic Cancer
Gynecologic Cancer
Hematologic Malignancies
Lung Cancer
Management of Malignant Pain
Neoplasms of the Head and Neck
Oncologic Emergencies
Pediatric Hematology and Oncology
Sickle Cell Disease
Transfusion Medicine (Principles and Complications)
Urological Cancer

CME Bank - Infectious Diseases

Coronavirus (SARS-COV-2, COVID-19)
COVID-19 During Pregnancy
Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus
Meningococcemia, Pneumococcemia
MRSA, VRE, ESBL
Tuberculosis
Parasitic Infections
Pediatric Infectious Diseases
Sepsis Syndromes
Systemic Fungal Infections
Tick-Borne Illnesses
Hantavirus HIV and AIDS
Influenza, Mononucleosis, Herpes
Rabies

CME Bank - Musculoskeletal System

Bone and Joint Infections
Crystal-Induced Arthropathy
Deep Soft Tissue Infections
Disorders of Muscles
Infectious, Inflammatory, and Reactive Arthritis
Neck and Back Pain
Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis
Sports Injuries / Trauma
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic Sclerosis Vasculitis
Pediatric Rheumatology and Musculoskeletal Disorders

CME Bank - Neurological System

Central Nervous System Disorders: Delirium and Dementia
Central Nervous System Disorders: Demyelinating/Inflammatory Diseases
Central Nervous System Disorders: Diseases of Movement Control
Central Nervous System Disorders: Seizures
Central Nervous System Disorders: Spinal Cord Syndromes
Central Nervous System Infections
Cerebrovascular Accidents: Epidemiology and Presentation
Cerebrovascular Accidents: Initial Work-Up
Cerebrovascular Accidents: Preventive Care
Cerebrovascular Accidents: Treatment
Headache: Cervical Neck Vessels, Subarachnoid, and Venous Emergencies
Headache: Cluster, Migraine, and Tension
Headache: Less Common Etiologies
Neurologic Assessment
Pediatric Neurologic Disorders
Peripheral Nervous System Disorders: Neuromuscular Junction Disease
Peripheral Nervous System Disorders: Neuropathies
Selected Cranial Nerve Disorders

CME Bank - Psychiatry/Behavioral System

Affective Disorders
Antidepressants
Anxiety Disorders
Anxiolytics
Dissociative Disorders
Eating Disorders
Factitious Disorders and Malingering
Geriatric Psychology
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Pediatric Psychiatric Disorders
Personality Disorders
Psychiatric Assessment
Psychological Factors Affecting Medical Disorders
Schizophrenia
Somatoform Disorders
Substance Abuse
Suicidal Behavior
Thought Disorders

CME Bank - Pulmonary System

Asthma and Other Obstructive Lung Disease
Interstitial Lung Disease
Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
Occupational and Environmental Lung Disease
Pediatric Respiratory Disorders
Pleural Disease
Pulmonary Vascular Disease
Sleep Medicine
Upper Respiratory Tract Infections

CME Bank - Reproductive System

Acute Complications of Pregnancy
Chronic Medical Illness During Pregnancy
Contraception
General Approach to the Pregnant Patient
Gynecological Assessment
Menopause and Hormonal Therapy
Screening and Regular Health Care in Adult Women
Sexual Assault Sexually Transmitted Infections: Female

Sample Question 1

A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with binge eating disorder. Her treatment will include a pharmacologic component. Which of the following medications may be effective for the treatment of binge eating disorder?

second-generation antipsychotics
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
topiramate or meperidine
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or topiramate
meperidine or bupropion

Correct!

SSRIs and topiramate are effective for the treatment of binge eating disorder. SSRIs are typically used at the upper end of their dose range and reduce binge eating. However, treatment with SSRIs is not associated with weight loss. Conversely, topiramate is effective for both binge reduction and weight loss, but its adverse events preclude its use as treatment for some patients. None of the other medications listed have proven efficacy for the treatment of binge eating disorder.

Reference:
American Psychiatric Association. Practice Guideline for the Treatment of Patients With Eating Disorders. 3rd ed., 2006.

Sample Question 2

A healthy automobile mechanic presents with a metallic corneal foreign body. After removal, a residual rust ring is seen. Which of the following is recommended?

Do not prescribe local anesthetic drops for 24 hours until follow-up in 24 hours
Observation as an outpatient until it spontaneously clears
Complete and immediate removal of rust ring
Removal of rust ring with a cotton-tipped applicator
Removal of rust ring within 24 hours

It used to be thought that topical anesthetics should never be prescribed or sent home with patients because they inhibited wound healing and could cause severe keratopathy. However, a gratefully received by patients, did NOT negatively affect wound healing, and also did not result in other complications.The authors concluded:

“Topical tetracaine used for 24 hours is safe, and while there was no significant difference in patient VAS pain ratings over time, patient surveys on overall effectiveness showed that patients perceived tetracaine to be significantly more effective than saline.”

It is often difficult and not necessary to remove a rust ring at the time of initial evaluation. Removal is easier after it softens within 24 hours. An electric corneal burr is the ideal tool for removal. Failure to at least eventually remove the rust ring leads to ferrous oxide diffusion throughout the cornea, with reduced vision.

Reference:

Waldman N. Topical tetracaine used for 24 hours is safe and rated highly effective by patients for the treatment of pain caused by corneal abrasions: a double-blind, randomized clinical trial. Acad Emerg Med. 2014 Apr;21(4):374-82. doi: 10.1111/acem.12346. accessible at www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/24730399

Sample Question 3

A 25-yo female equestrian comes into the office complaining of a rash on her left foot with intense itching for one week. She has used over the counter antibiotic ointment as well as cortisone cream with no relief. She owns several horses and dogs. Her general health is unremarkable and she is on no medication. She has no known allergies. Examination reveals a two-inch serpiginous erythematous lesion on the dorsal aspect of her left foot. There are surrounding vesicles with yellow discharge on the surface.

What is the initial treatment of choice for this patient?

Topical Thiabendazole cream
Topical Hydrocortisone cream
Oral prednisone
Topical Terbinafine cream
Topical Naftifine cream

The case describes cutaneous larva migrans (creeping eruption), which is the most common tropically acquired dermatosis. The intensely pruritic, serpiginous, erythematous lesion with exposure to horses should lead you to this diagnosis. Tinea pedis is a superficial fungal infection that is found in the intertriginous areas like the toe webs and the soles of the feet. It is usually not serpiginous and scales are found on the surface. Scabies is an infection caused by the mite, Sarcoptes scabiei, and is not usually limited to one area of the body. The most common organisms that cause cutaneous larva migrans are hookworms, Ancylostoma, Necator, and Strongyloides. Thiabendazole is currently considered the agent of choice in cutaneous larva migrans. Topical application is used for early, localized lesions. Oral ivermectin can be used as well but topical agents should be tried initially. Psoriasis is an inherited dermatosis that typically involves the extensor surfaces of the body, the scalp, and the back with mild to moderate itching. In addition, the lesions are usually well-defined, erythematous plaques with silvery scales that bleed upon removal (Auspitz's sign). Arthropod bites can occur from any type of insect and are individual papules and not serpiginous.

Sample Question 4

A 23-year-old military recruit presents to the clinic complaining of sore throat and fever. About 1 week prior to his presentation he began to experience chills, sweats, malaise, and poor appetite. His sore throat progressively worsened, and he has been recording temperatures above 38.3°C. He reports that he has not been in contact with anyone who was ill and has not traveled recently. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. He is usually active and plays recreational lacrosse. On examination, his temperature is 38°C, blood pressure is 130/86 mm Hg, heart rate is 120 beats/minute, and respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute. He has multiple swollen lymph nodes in the neck, as well as pharyngeal erythema. Heart and lung examinations are unremarkable. The abdomen is soft, with mild guarding. The liver edge is not palpable and the percussion of Traube’s space revealed dullness. There is a palpable mass at the left upper quadrant. The neurologic examination was nonfocal.

Laboratory tests show a white blood cell count of 15 and lymphocytic predominance. The rest of the complete blood count is normal. Alanine aminotransferase and aspartate transaminase were mildly elevated and the total bilirubin was normal. Rapid strep test was negative, and the heterophile antibodies were negative.

Which statement is most appropriate in the management of this patient's condition?

Prescribe acyclovir to complete a 10-day course.
He may resume playing lacrosse as long as he is afebrile.
Corticosteroids should be promptly started.
Obtain a series of abdominal ultrasonographic studies.
Foscarnet may be helpful in resolving the illness.

This patient is experiencing signs and symptoms consistent with infectious mononucleosis. The typical triad consists of fever, lymphadenopathy, and sore throat. Prodromal symptoms are also common. Treatment of this condition is mostly supportive; 95% of patients recover with no specific therapy. Antiviral agents have not been shown to be effective. Corticosteroids are generally not indicated, except in more complicated cases such as those with tonsillar swelling that threatens the airway, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, aplastic anemia, encephalitis, myocarditis, and pericarditis. This patient has no signs of such complications. He does have splenomegaly, which will need to be monitored with serial examinations and ultrasonography until the enlargement subsides. He should not play contact sports until the splenomegaly had resolved.

Reference:
Johannsen EC, Kaye KM. Epstein-Barr virus. In: Mandell G, ed. Mandell, Douglas, and Bennett's Principles and Practice of Infectious Diseases. 7th ed., 2009.

Sample Question 5

A 61-year-old man had a myocardial infarction 2 months ago. He presented with angina and was urgently taken to the cardiac catheterization laboratory for percutaneous intervention. He had drug-eluting stents placed in the left circumflex and the right coronary arteries. He was discharged with aspirin, clopidogrel, metoprolol succinate, and simvastatin therapy.

He is having no angina symptoms or dyspnea, and his blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg.

What drug should be added to this patient’s therapy, provided there is no strong contraindication?

diuretic
calcium channel blocker
digoxin
long-acting nitrate
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

Correct!

All patients who have had a recent or remote myocardial infarction should be treated with both angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta-blockers. Patients who have had myocardial infarctions are at substantial risk of developing heart failure through progressive left ventricle remodeling. They should be treated with both ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers to reduce the risk of developing symptomatic heart failure.

References:
Hunt S, Abraham W et al. 2009 Focused Update Incorporated into the ACC/AHA 2005 Guidelines for the Diagnosis and Management of Heart Failure in Adults. Circulation 2009, 119:e391-e479.
Mann D, Chakinala M. Heart Failure and Cor Pulmonale. In: Longo D et al., eds. Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine. 18th ed. New York: McGraw-Hill; 2012.

Target Audience

Med-Challenger Physician Assistant is intended for practitioners of acute and primary care or clinicians otherwise involved in the diagnosis and treatment of acute, emergent, or chronic medical problems.

Educational Objectives

The objective of the Challenger academic continuing medical education programs is to provide an interactive review of the knowledge base of acute care and primary care medicine as appropriate by medical specialty. After completing this course, the participating clinician should be better equipped to:

Confidently manage the broad spectrum of acute and chronic medical problems encountered in the practice of medicine.
Formulate appropriate differential diagnoses for patients presenting with acute medical problems of uncertain etiology.
Efficiently initiate therapeutic and diagnostic procedures for patients presenting with acute and chronic medical disorders.
Cope effectively with the uncertainty that is inherent in the initial treatment of acute and chronic disorders.
Handle efficiently the spectrum of common disorders involving all organ systems. In particular, the physician will be better equipped to diagnose and treat acute and chronic: cardiovascular disorders; diseases of the eye, ear, nose, throat, skin and soft tissues; endocrinologic disorders; traumatic and environmental injuries; gastrointestinal diseases; gynecologic and obstetric disorders; hematologic and oncologic problems; immunologic, allergic and rheumatologic diseases; infectious diseases; life-threatening signs and symptoms; musculoskeletal disorders; pulmonary diseases; and intoxications and poisonings.
Demonstrate mastery of the knowledge and cognitive skills required to achieve objectives 1-5 by scoring at least 80% on all topics studied for CME credit.

Faculty

Mark W. Perdue, PA-C
Clinical Assistant Professor
University of Oklahoma (Tulsa)
Tulsa, OK

Joint Accreditation Statement

This activity has been planned and implemented in accordance with the accreditation requirements and policies of the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education (ACCME) through the joint providership of National Association for Continuing Education and Challenger Corporation.

The National Association for Continuing Education is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education to provide continuing medical education for physicians.

Designation Statement

AMA Credit - The National Association for Continuing Education designates this enduring activity for a maximum of 215.0 AMA PRA Category 1 Credit(s)™. Physicians should claim only the credit commensurate with the extent of their participation in the activity.

AAPA Credit - Earn up to 20 AAPA-approved CME credits (annual requirements)

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