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Our pass-guaranteed physician assistant board review courses gets you prepared for PA boards fast, thanks to our constantly updated physician assistant review questions, detailed answer explanations, and intelligent PA board exam simulators. Plus, our online PANCE / PANRE board review course keeps serving you after exams too. PANCE or PANRE, Physician Assistant board review has never been so easy, effective, or efficient. It's more than just the best physician assistant question bank, it's lifelong physician assistant education and AAPA MOC convenience.

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2600+ Physician Assistant Exam Review Questions

High-Yield Physician Assistant exam practice questions mapped to the PANCE / PANRE exam blueprints.

Using authoritative resources, our physician assistant editors ensure our PA exam review courses are always current and cover the latest NCCPA exam blueprints. Med-Challenger's PANCE / PANRE and CAQ-EM Board Review courses are 100% pass-guaranteed and used by GME programs and healthcare organizations world-wide.

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The MOST CME credits you'll find in any online physician assistant board review.

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Physician Assistant Course Information

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Post-Rotation Exams

Post-Rotation Exam - Allergy/Immunology
Post-Rotation Exam - Cardiology
Post-Rotation Exam - Dermatology
Post-Rotation Exam - EENT
Post-Rotation Exam - Emergency Medicine
Post-Rotation Exam - Family Medicine
Post-Rotation Exam - Geriatrics
Post-Rotation Exam - Internal Medicine
Post-Rotation Exam - OBGYN
Post-Rotation Exam - Orthopedics
Post-Rotation Exam - Pediatrics
Post-Rotation Exam - Psychiatry
Post-Rotation Exam - Surgery
Post-Rotation Exam - Underserved Care
Post-Rotation Exam - Urgent Care

CME Bank - Signs, Symptoms, and Presentations (AAPA Credit)

Abdominal Pain
Acute Pelvic Pain in Women
Acute Vaginal Bleeding
Back Pain
Chest Pain
Confusion
Constipation
Cyanosis
Depressed Consciousness and Coma
Diarrhea
Dizziness and Vertigo
Dyspnea
Fever in the Adult Patient
Gastrointestinal Bleeding
Headache: Initial Approach
Hemoptysis
Jaundice
Nausea and Vomiting
Seizures: Initial Approach
Syncope
Weakness

CME Bank - Allergy/Immunology

Auto-Immune Collagen Vascular Disorders
Drug Allergy
Food Allergy
Hypersensitivity Reactions
Pediatric Allergy and Immunology
Primary Immunodeficiency Disorders
The Immunocompromised / Solid-Organ Transplant Patient

CME Bank - Cardiovascular System

Congenital Heart Disease in the Adult
Congestive Heart Failure
Dysrhythmias/Conduction Defects
Endocarditis
Hypertension
Ischemic Heart Disease
Myocardial Disease
Pediatric Cardiovascular Disease
Pericardial Disease
Valvular Heart Disease
Vascular Disease

CME Bank - Dermatology

Acne/Rosacea
Cancers of the Skin
Cutaneous Infections
Dermatitis (non-infectious)
Maculopapular Lesions
Papular/Nodular Lesions
Pediatric Dermatology
Ulcerative Lesions
Vesicular / Bullous Lesions

CME Bank - EENT (Eyes, Ears, Nose and Throat) System

Eye: Assessment
Eye: Glaucoma
Eye: Inflammation and Infection
Eye: Pharmacology
Eye: Vascular Disorders
Nose: Infection and Inflammation
Oral Cavity: Medical Disorders
Otologic Infections
Otologic Signs, Symptoms, Presentations
Pediatric Eye, Ear, Nose and Throat Disorders
Throat and Soft Tissue Neck: Medical Disorders

CME Bank - Endocrinology, Metabolism, and Nutrition

Adrenal Disorders
Diabetes Mellitus
Disorders of Calcium Metabolism and Bone
Hypoglycemia
Lipid Disorders
Obesity
Thyroid Disorders
Pediatric Endocrine Disorders

CME Bank - Gastroenterology/Nutritional System

Biliary Tract Disease
Colonic and Anorectal Disease
Esophageal Disorders
Liver Disease
Pancreatic Disease
Pediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders
Small Intestinal Disease
Stomach or Duodenum

CME Bank - Genitourinary System

Acute Renal Failure
Chronic Kidney Disease
Glomerular Disorders
Nephrolithiasis
Pediatric Nephrology and Urology
Penile Disorders
Prostate Disorders
Sexually Transmitted Infections - Male
Testicular Disorders
Urinary Incontinence
Urinary Tract Infections
Water and Electrolyte Balance

CME Bank - Hematology and Oncology

Anemia
Bone Tumors
Breast Cancer
Coagulopathies
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Gastrointestinal or Hepatic Cancer
Gynecologic Cancer
Hematologic Malignancies
Lung Cancer
Management of Malignant Pain
Neoplasms of the Head and Neck
Oncologic Emergencies
Pediatric Hematology and Oncology
Sickle Cell Disease
Transfusion Medicine (Principles and Complications)
Urological Cancer

CME Bank - Infectious Diseases

Coronavirus (SARS-COV-2, COVID-19)
COVID-19 During Pregnancy
Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus
Meningococcemia, Pneumococcemia
MRSA, VRE, ESBL
Tuberculosis
Parasitic Infections
Pediatric Infectious Diseases
Sepsis Syndromes
Systemic Fungal Infections
Tick-Borne Illnesses
Hantavirus HIV and AIDS
Influenza, Mononucleosis, Herpes
Rabies

CME Bank - Musculoskeletal System

Bone and Joint Infections
Crystal-Induced Arthropathy
Deep Soft Tissue Infections
Disorders of Muscles
Infectious, Inflammatory, and Reactive Arthritis
Neck and Back Pain
Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis
Sports Injuries / Trauma
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic Sclerosis Vasculitis
Pediatric Rheumatology and Musculoskeletal Disorders

CME Bank - Neurological System

Central Nervous System Disorders: Delirium and Dementia
Central Nervous System Disorders: Demyelinating/Inflammatory Diseases
Central Nervous System Disorders: Diseases of Movement Control
Central Nervous System Disorders: Seizures
Central Nervous System Disorders: Spinal Cord Syndromes
Central Nervous System Infections
Cerebrovascular Accidents: Epidemiology and Presentation
Cerebrovascular Accidents: Initial Work-Up
Cerebrovascular Accidents: Preventive Care
Cerebrovascular Accidents: Treatment
Headache: Cervical Neck Vessels, Subarachnoid, and Venous Emergencies
Headache: Cluster, Migraine, and Tension
Headache: Less Common Etiologies
Neurologic Assessment
Pediatric Neurologic Disorders
Peripheral Nervous System Disorders: Neuromuscular Junction Disease
Peripheral Nervous System Disorders: Neuropathies
Selected Cranial Nerve Disorders

CME Bank - Psychiatry/Behavioral System

Affective Disorders
Antidepressants
Anxiety Disorders
Anxiolytics
Dissociative Disorders
Eating Disorders
Factitious Disorders and Malingering
Geriatric Psychology
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Pediatric Psychiatric Disorders
Personality Disorders
Psychiatric Assessment
Psychological Factors Affecting Medical Disorders
Schizophrenia
Somatoform Disorders
Substance Abuse
Suicidal Behavior
Thought Disorders

CME Bank - Pulmonary System

Asthma and Other Obstructive Lung Disease
Interstitial Lung Disease
Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
Occupational and Environmental Lung Disease
Pediatric Respiratory Disorders
Pleural Disease
Pulmonary Vascular Disease
Sleep Medicine
Upper Respiratory Tract Infections

CME Bank - Reproductive System

Acute Complications of Pregnancy
Chronic Medical Illness During Pregnancy
Contraception
General Approach to the Pregnant Patient
Gynecological Assessment
Menopause and Hormonal Therapy
Screening and Regular Health Care in Adult Women
Sexual Assault Sexually Transmitted Infections: Female

Sample Question 1

Which of the following describes an acceptable treatment option for Trichomonas infection?

oral metronidazole 500 mg daily for 7 days
single oral dose of metronidazole 1 g
intravaginal metronidazole gel 0.75% at bedtime for 7 days
single oral dose of metronidazole 2 g

Educational Objective:

Discuss current treatment guidelines for trichomoniasis.

Key Point:

A single 2 g oral dose of metronidazole suffices for treating trichomoniasis. Bacterial vaginosis, on the other hand, requires a 1-week treatment with metronidazole (500 mg twice a day for 7 days).

Explanation:

Acceptable treatments for Trichomonas infection include a single oral dose or metronidazole 2 g, a single oral dose of tinidazole 2 g, or oral metronidazole 500 mg twice a day for 7 days. Intravaginal treatment is not recommended for this condition. Metronidazole does not appear to be associated with increased teratogenic risk during pregnancy and can be prescribed for pregnant women. Metronidazole and tinidazole can cause a disulfiram-type reaction in persons who subsequently consume alcohol; therefore, patients taking these agents should be advised to avoid alcohol for 24-72 hours after the last dose.

References:

McKinzie J. Sexually Transmitted Diseases. In: Marx JA, et al. In: Rosen’s Emergency Medicine: Concepts and Clinical Practice. 9th ed.,2018.

Workowski KA, Bolan GA. Sexually Transmitted Diseases Treatment Guidelines, 2015. MMWR Recomm Rep 2015; 64 (No 3): 72.

Sobel JD. Trichomoniasis. UpToDate. Updated April 12, 2018.

Sample Question 2

A 38-year-old man presents to you with a non-pruritic, painless, facial skin lesion (see figure). He is a non-smoker.

He has a history of declining pulmonary function and hilar lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

amyloidosis
xanthomas
rosacea
lupus erythematosus
sarcoidosis

This patient has soft, red-brown papules and plaques located around the eyes and ears characteristic of sarcoidosis.

In cases of cutaneous sarcoidosis, skin-colored or violaceous infiltrated dome-shaped papules and plaques persisting for months are typical. Papules may coalesce to form annular, polycyclic, or serpiginous lesions. In addition, the eyes are involved in 20% to 30% of cases. The distribution is usually bilateral in cutaneous cases and the condition may occur in old scars. Older patients with the disease typically have a worse prognosis than younger patients.

Xanthomas are yellow to yellow-orange in color and do not show a predisposition for location around the nose. Amyloidosis, when located around the eyes, presents as "pinch purpura" which is characterized by violaceous patches reminiscent of bruising.

Rosacea occurs as erythematous papules, pustules, erythema, and telangiectasias over the face. Discoid lupus erythematosus occurs as well demarcated scaly erythematous plaques over the face that show scarring with time.

References:

Baughman RP, et al. In: Kasper D, et al, eds. Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine. 19th ed., 2015.

Iannuzzi MC, Fontana JR. Sarcoidosis: Clinical Presentation, immunopathogenesis and therapeutics. JAMA. 2011; 305: 391-399

Sample Question 3

A 42-year-old man presents complaining of a beefy red lesion on the penis. Physical exam reveals an atypical growth, which is confirmed by a biopsy of the penis, that is consistent with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis. The area of the penis most commonly affected is:

scrotum
base
shaft
glans or foreskin

Penile carcinoma is usually found on the glans or foreskin.

Penile carcinoma is a rare disease that may present as a reddish warty growth or painless ulcer, usually in men over the age of 40 years who have never been circumcised. The great majority are squamous cell carcinomas.

Burgers, JK, Badalament, RA, Drago, JR. Penile cancer. Clinical presentation, diagnosis, and staging. Urol Clin North Am 1992; 19:247.

Puras, A, Gonzalez-Flores, B, Furtuno, B, et al. Treatment of carcinoma of the penis. Proc Kimbrough Urol Semin 1978; 12:143.

Cubilla, AL, Reuter, V, Velazquez, E, et al. Histologic classification of penile carcinoma and its relation to outcome in 61 patients with primary resection. Int J Surg Pathol 2001; 9:111.

Cubilla, AL, Velazques, EF, Reuter, VE, et al. Warty (condylomatous) squamous cell carcinoma of the penis: A report of 11 cases and proposed classification of'verruciform'penile tumors. Am J Surg Pathol 2000; 24:505.

Sample Question 4

A 49-year-old woman is being followed for HIV infection. The patient was diagnosed 7 years ago, and she has been coming regularly to her quarterly appointments. Her initial CD4 cell count of 546 cells/µL has progressively decreased to 348 cells/µL. The patient has been offered antiretroviral therapy (ART) on several occasions but she has declined treatment.

At the time of her diagnosis, she had a positive purified protein derivative test (with no symptoms and negative findings on chest x-ray) and completed 9 months of latent anti-tuberculosis (TB) treatment with a single drug. She has had a yearly Pap smear since the time of her HIV diagnosis. She has protected sex with a single partner who is aware of her diagnosis. She is currently asymptomatic.

Her vital signs are: temperature 36.2 °C, pulse 78 beats/minute, and blood pressure 147/89 mm Hg.

The findings of the oral examination are shown in the Figure.

Figure.

The rest of her physical examination is normal. In addition to treating her for this oral condition, what would you recommend for this patient in terms of prophylaxis for opportunistic infections?

daily isoniazid 300 mg taken orally
1 daily double-strength sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim tablet taken orally
no prophylaxis indicated
weekly fluconazole 150 mg taken orally

Educational Objective:

Recall chemoprophylaxis guidelines for HIV infection.

Key Point:

Adults and adolescents infected with HIV, including women who are pregnant and those on ART with a CD4 count lower than 200 cells/µL, should receive chemoprophylaxis against Pneumocystis jirovecipneumonia.

Explanation:

Adults and adolescents infected with HIV infection, including women who are pregnant and those on ART, with a CD4 count lower than 200 cells/µL should receive chemoprophylaxis against Pneumocystis jirovecipneumonia(PCP). The presence of oropharyngeal candidiasis was an indication for PCP prophylaxis in previous guidelines, whereas current guidelines recommend the use of PCP prophylaxis guided by CD4 count.

Because this patient’s CD4 count is higher than 200 cells/ µL, she does not require PCP prophylaxis. However, she requires frequent review because her CD4 count is likely to continue to decline. Daily sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim at a dose of 1 daily double-strength tablet is recommended. The single-strength tablet may also be effective and may be better tolerated than the higher dose.

Any adult or adolescent infected with HIV and who has a CD4 count lower than 50 cells/µL should receive chemoprophylaxis against disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex infection.

The patient has already received anti-TB treatment (previously called prophylaxis) for latent TB and has no need for a repeated course.

Fungal prophylaxis is not routinely considered and is only recommended for patients with epidemiologic risk based on their occupation or place of residence or those at risk for developing deep fungal infections (cryptococcosis, histoplasmosis).

Reference:

US Department of Health and Human Services. Guidelines for the prevention and treatment of opportunistic infections in HIV-infected adults and adolescents. Updated July 25, 2017. Accessed July 24, 2018.

Sample Question 5

A 36-year-old woman was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder caused by childhood physical abuse by her father who abused alcohol. She displays an array of dissociative symptoms that are very troubling to her. Which of the following therapeutic techniques can be used to alleviate her symptoms?

Exposure techniques
Hypnotic techniques
Relaxation techniques
Cognitive restructuring

Correct!

Hypnotic techniques are recommended for dissociative symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder, pain, nightmares, and anxiety.

References:
U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, U.S. Department of Defense. VA/DoD clinical practice guideline: management of post-traumatic stress. http://www.healthquality.va.gov/PTSD-FULL-2010c.pdf . Accessed February 13, 2013.

Target Audience

Med-Challenger Physician Assistant is intended for practitioners of acute and primary care or clinicians otherwise involved in the diagnosis and treatment of acute, emergent, or chronic medical problems.

Educational Objectives

The objective of the Challenger academic continuing medical education programs is to provide an interactive review of the knowledge base of acute care and primary care medicine as appropriate by medical specialty. After completing this course, the participating clinician should be better equipped to:

Confidently manage the broad spectrum of acute and chronic medical problems encountered in the practice of medicine.
Formulate appropriate differential diagnoses for patients presenting with acute medical problems of uncertain etiology.
Efficiently initiate therapeutic and diagnostic procedures for patients presenting with acute and chronic medical disorders.
Cope effectively with the uncertainty that is inherent in the initial treatment of acute and chronic disorders.
Handle efficiently the spectrum of common disorders involving all organ systems. In particular, the physician will be better equipped to diagnose and treat acute and chronic: cardiovascular disorders; diseases of the eye, ear, nose, throat, skin and soft tissues; endocrinologic disorders; traumatic and environmental injuries; gastrointestinal diseases; gynecologic and obstetric disorders; hematologic and oncologic problems; immunologic, allergic and rheumatologic diseases; infectious diseases; life-threatening signs and symptoms; musculoskeletal disorders; pulmonary diseases; and intoxications and poisonings.
Demonstrate mastery of the knowledge and cognitive skills required to achieve objectives 1-5 by scoring at least 80% on all topics studied for CME credit.

Faculty

Mark W. Perdue, PA-C
Clinical Assistant Professor
University of Oklahoma (Tulsa)
Tulsa, OK

Joint Accreditation Statement

This activity has been planned and implemented in accordance with the accreditation requirements and policies of the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education (ACCME) through the joint providership of National Association for Continuing Education and Challenger Corporation.

The National Association for Continuing Education is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education to provide continuing medical education for physicians.

Designation Statement

AMA Credit - The National Association for Continuing Education designates this enduring activity for a maximum of 215.0 AMA PRA Category 1 Credit(s)™. Physicians should claim only the credit commensurate with the extent of their participation in the activity.

AAPA Credit - Earn up to 20 AAPA-approved CME credits (annual requirements)

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