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Best ABEM ConCert exam review for emergency medicine recertification board review

Med-Challenger's ABEM ConCert™ Exam review is the most effective, easiest to use ABEM ConCert board review question bank for the American Board of Emergency Medicine ConCert examination for Emergency Medicine recertification. Med-Challenger's ABEM recertification exam review with intelligent ABEM ConCert self-assessment provides everything you need to pass the ABEM MOC exam and fulfill other emergency medicine certification requirements all in one powerful, effective, and convenient access point online.

Our pass-guaranteed Emergency Medicine recertification board review course gets you prepared for the ABEM recertification exam fast, thanks to our constantly updated Emergency Medicine review questions, detailed answer explanations, and intelligent ABEM ConCert Exam simulators. Plus, our online ABEM ConCert exam prep course keeps serving you after exams too. ABEM Recertification Exam review has never been so easy, effective, or efficient. It's more than just the best emergency medicine question bank, it's lifelong emergency medicine education and ABEM MOC convenience.

emergency medicine ABEM recertification board review - ABEM MOC exam question bank

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3700+ Emergency Medicine ConCert Exam Review Questions

High-Yield Q&A mapped to the EM Model and ABEM MOC exam blueprint.

Using authoritative resources such as Rosen's and Tintinalli's emergency medicine textbooks, our emergency medicine physician editors ensure our ABEM ConCert Exam review course is always current and covers the latest ABEM Recertification Exam blueprint. Med-Challenger ConCert Board Review is 100% pass-guaranteed and used by the National Emergency Medicine Review live course, GME programs and healthcare organizations world-wide.

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Emergency Medicine Course Information

Emergency Medicine Review Course Information

Signs, Symptoms, and Presentations

Abdominal Pain
Acute Pelvic Pain in Women
Acute Vaginal Bleeding
Back Pain
Chest Pain
Confusion
Constipation
Cyanosis
Depressed Consciousness and Coma
Diarrhea
Dizziness and Vertigo
Dyspnea
Fever in the Adult Patient
Gastrointestinal Bleeding
Headache: Initial Approach
Hemoptysis
Jaundice
Nausea and Vomiting
Seizures: Initial Approach
Syncope
Weakness

Abdominal and Gastrointestinal Disorders

Anorectal Disorders
Appendicitis
Colitis, Ileitis, and Functional Bowel Disorders
Disorders of the Liver
Esophagus, Stomach, and Duodenum
Gallbladder and Biliary Tract Disorders
Hernias
Infectious Gastroenteritis
Obstruction, Ischemia, Perforation, Peritonitis
Pancreatitis
Pediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders

Cardiovascular Disorders

Acute Coronary Syndromes - Diagnosis and Challenges Non-ST-Elevation
Acute Coronary Syndromes - Initial Workup Non-ST-Elevation
Acute Coronary Syndromes - Medical Therapies Non-ST-Elevation
Acute Coronary Syndromes - Surgical Invasive Management Non-ST-Elevation
Acute Coronary Syndromes - Special Patient Groups ST-Elevation
Acute Coronary Syndromes - Initial Medical Care ST-Elevation
Acute Coronary Syndromes - Reperfusion Strategies ST-Elevation
Acute Coronary Syndromes - Stabilization of Complications
Cardiac Failure
Cardiac Valve Disorders
Cardiomyopathies
Circulation: Aortic Aneurysms
Circulation: Aortic Dissection
Circulation: Hypertension - Emergency Management
Circulation: Peripheral Vascular Emergencies
Dysrhythmia: Basic Concepts
Dysrhythmia: Conduction Disorders
Dysrhythmia: Implantable Devices Dysrhythmia: Pharmacology
Dysrhythmia: Supraventricular
Dysrhythmia: Ventricular
Endocarditis and Myocarditis
Pericarditis/Pericardial Tamponade (Non-Traumatic)

Cutaneous Disorders

Cancers of the Skin
Cutaneous Infections
Dermatitis (Non-Infectious)
Maculopapular Lesions
Papular/Nodular Lesions
Ulcerative Lesions
Vesicular/Bullous Lesions

Endocrine, Metabolic, & Nutritional Disorders

Basic Science Review: Acid-Base Regulation
Basic Science Review: Regulation of Water and Osmolarity
Clinical Context: Acid-Base Disorders
Clinical Context: Alcoholic and Lactic Acidosis
Clinical Context: Osmol and Anion Gaps
Electrolyte Disorders: Calcium, Magnesium, Phosphorus
Electrolyte Disorders: Potassium
Electrolyte Disorders: Sodium, Chloride
Endocrine Disorders: Adrenal Gland
Endocrine Disorders: Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Endocrine Disorders: Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State
Endocrine Disorders: Hypoglycemia
Endocrine Disorders: Thyroid Gland
Miscellaneous: Alcohol-Related Disease

Environmental Disorders

Drowning
Electrical and Lightning Injuries
Frostbite
Heat-Related Illnesses
High Altitude Disorders
Hypothermia: Accidental
Marine Animal Envenomations and Injuries
Scuba Diving and Dysbarism
Venomous Animal Injuries: Arthropods
Venomous Animal Injuries: Reptiles

Eye, Ear, Nose & Throat Disorders

Eye: Assessment
Eye: Glaucoma
Eye: Inflammation and Infection
Eye: Pharmacology
Eye: Vascular Disorders
Nose: Infection and Inflammation
Oral Cavity: Medical Disorders
Otologic Infections
Otologic Signs, Symptoms, Presentations
Throat and Soft Tissue Neck: Medical Disorders

Hematologic and Oncologic Disorders

Disorders of Hemostasis: Factor Deficiencies
Disorders of Hemostasis: Platelets/Fibrinogen
Red and White Blood Cell Disorders
Selected Oncologic Emergencies
Transfusions

Immune System Disorders

Collagen Vascular/Immune Complex Disorders
Hypersensitivity Reactions
The Immunocompromised/Solid-Organ Transplant Patient

Systemic Infectious Disorders

Bacterial Infections: Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus
Bacterial Infections: Meningococcemia, Pneumococcemia
Bacterial Infections: MRSA, VRE, ESBL
Bacterial Infections: Pediatric I, II
Bacterial Infections: Tuberculosis
Coronavirus (SARS-COV-2, COVID-19)
COVID-19 During Pregnancy
Parasitic Infections
Sepsis Syndromes
Systemic Fungal Infections
Tick-Borne Illnesses
Viral Infections: Hantavirus
Viral Infections: HIV
Viral Infections: Influenza, Mononucleosis, Herpes
Viral Infections: Pediatric
Viral Infections: Rabies

Musculoskeletal Disorders (Non-Traumatic)

Bone and Joint Infections
Deep Soft Tissue Infections
Disorders of Muscles
Disorders of the Spine
Overuse Syndromes (incl. Tendinopathy and Bursitis)

Nervous System Disorders

Neurological Assessment
Central Nervous System Disorders: Delirium and Dementia
Central Nervous System Disorders: Demyelinating/Inflammatory
Central Nervous System Disorders: Seizures
Central Nervous System Disorders: Spinal Cord Syndromes
Central Nervous System Infections Headache Disorders
Stroke: Presentation
Stroke: Initial Work-Up
Stroke: Treatment
Pediatric Nervous System Disorders I, II
Neuromuscular Junction Disease
Peripheral Nervous System Disorders
Selected Cranial Nerve Disorders

Psychobehavioral Disorders

Emergency Psychiatric Evaluation
Schizophrenia/Psychotic Disorders
Somatic Symptom Disorders
Suicide Violence, Abuse, Neglect: Assault (incl. sexual)
Violence, Abuse, Neglect: Elderly Citizens

Renal and Urogenital Disorders

Male Genital Problems: Noninfectious
Nephropathy, Contrast-Induced
Nephroureterolithiasis
Renal Failure: Acute
Renal Failure: Chronic
Renal Transplantation
Sexually Transmitted Infections: Male
Urinary Retention
Urinary Tract Infection
Urological Assessment

Thoracic-Respiratory Disorders

Acute Upper Airway Disorders (Incl. Peds.)
Disorders Of Pleura, Mediastinum, And Chest Wall
Obstructive/Restrictive Diseases: Fibrosis/Emphysema/Exposures (Incl. Peds) I, II
Obstructive/Restrictive Diseases: Reactive Lower Airway Disorders (Incl. Peds)
Pulmonary Embolism/Hypertension/Edema Pulmonary Infections (Incl. Peds)

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Gynecologic Infections: Genital Lesions
Gynecologic Infections: Vaginal Discharge
Pregnancy: Acute Medical/Surgical Complications
Pregnancy: Acute Obstetric Complications
Pregnancy: General Approach to the Pregnant Patient
Pregnancy: Labor, Delivery and Their Complications
Pregnancy: Preexisting Medical Illness

Toxicologic Disorders

General Approach to the Poisoned Patient
Acetaminophen Toxicity
Antibiotics Toxicity and Side Effects
Anticholinergics Toxicity
Anticonvulsant Toxicity
Antidepressants Toxicity (incl. Serotonin Syndrome)
Antipsychotics Toxicity
Aspirin and NSAIDs Toxicity
Bronchodilator Toxicity
Cardiovascular Drug Toxicity
Caustic Ingestion
Cocaine and Other Sympathomimetics Toxicity
Hallucinogen Toxicity
Heavy Metal Toxicity
Hydrocarbon Toxicity
Inhaled Toxins
Lithium Toxicity
Opiate Toxicity
Pesticide Toxicity (incl. Organophosphates)
Sedatives and Hypnotics Toxicity (incl. Barbiturates, Benzodiazepines)
Toxic Alcohols
Toxic Plant Ingestions (incl. Mushrooms)

Traumatic Disorders

Bites - Mammals (incl. Humans)
Burns: Chemical
Burns: Thermal
EENT Trauma: Eye
EENT Trauma: Nose
EENT Trauma: Oral-Dental
EENT Trauma: Otologic
Orthopedic Injuries: Ankle
Orthopedic Injuries: Cervical Spine
Orthopedic Injuries: Femur and Hip
Orthopedic Injuries: Foot
Orthopedic Injuries: Hand
Orthopedic Injuries: Humerus and Elbow
Orthopedic Injuries: Knee and Lower Leg
Orthopedic Injuries: Shoulder
Orthopedic Injuries: Wrist and Forearm
Special Populations: Geriatric Trauma
Special Populations: Trauma in Pregnancy
Trauma: Abdominal
Trauma: Face
Trauma: Foreign Bodies
Trauma: Genitourinary
Trauma: Head
Trauma: Multiple and Blast Injuries
Trauma: Pelvic
Trauma: Peripheral Vascular Injury
Trauma: Soft Tissue Neck
Trauma: Spinal Cord
Trauma: Thoracic - Cardiovascular Injuries
Trauma: Thoracic - Chest Wall
Trauma: Thoracic - Esophageal Injuries
Trauma: Thoracic - Pulmonary Injuries

Airway, Ventilation, Resuscitation

Advanced Airway: Adult
Airway: Pediatric
Breathing: Ventilatory Support (Adult/Pediatric)
Resuscitation: Adult Cardiac
Resuscitation: Brain (After Cardiac Arrest)
Resuscitation: Neonatal
Resuscitation: Pediatric
Resuscitation: Shock
Resuscitation: Trauma

Procedural Sedation

Procedural Sedation: Adult
Procedural Sedation: Pediatric

Wound Management

Wound Management: General
Wound Management: Closure Techniques
Wound Management: Escharotomy
Wound Management: Incision and Drainage
Wound Management: Nail Trephination

EMS and Disaster Response Systems

Air and Ground EMS Transport
Disaster Preparedness
Disasters/Terrorism: Biological
Disasters/Terrorism: Chemical
Disasters/Terrorism: Explosives
Disasters/Terrorism: Radiation (incl. Nuclear)

Laws, Ethics, and Professionalism

Consent, Error Disclosure, and Other Ethical-Legal Challenges
EMTALA
End of Life Care
Optimizing Patient Safety
Optimizing Care During Conflict and Crisis
Optimizing Care of Culturally Diverse Populations
Physician Wellness and Impairment
Prevention and Control of Injury

Sample Question 1

A 14-year-old girl presents to you with malaise, fever, and tachycardia after attending an outdoor overnight camp in the mountains during the summer. She is found to have hemolytic anemia and diagnosed with babesiosis.

What pre-existing condition puts her at higher risk for severe infection?

prior infection with Lyme disease
prior infection with babesiosis
history of appendectomy
sickle cell disease with a history of splenectomy

Educational Objective:

Recognition of risk factors for a poor clinical course after a babesiosis infection

Key Point:

Babesia is a protozoa transmitted via ticks. Over 40% of patients with Lyme disease are co-infected with babesia. Babesiosis can be asymptomatic or severe. It often has a worse course in people who are asplenic, immunocompromised, or elderly.

Explanation:

The infection is characterized by fever and hemolytic anemia, as well as flu-like symptoms and mimics malaria. It is diagnosed via microscopy. Treatment of severe cases or high- risk patients (such as the above patient) usually includes clindamycin and quinine. Since this regimen is associated with more side effects, patients with milder symptoms and no risk factors (no asplenia, sickle cell, immmunsuppression, advanced age) are preferably treated with the better-tolerated regimen of azithromycin and atavaquone. Asymptomatic patients (if they are ever even diagnosed) may require no treatment at all. Treatment guidelines with respect to babesiosis – especially asymptomatic cases are currently evolving.

References:

Martínez-Balzano C, Hess M, Malhotra A, Lenox R. Severe babesiosis and Borrelia burgdorferi co-infection. QJM. 2015;108(2):141-143.

Cameron D. Babesia and Lyme — it's worse than you think. 

CDC Guidelines (2013) Parasites - Babesiosis 

Sample Question 2

In July a graduate student with a history of bronchiectasis presents to you with complaints of fever, cough, and chest pain for the last 12 hours. He has been capturing rodents for a science experiment in Arizona. He has a temperature of 102.7°F. His initial laboratory results revealed a white blood cell count of 11,000 cells with 87% granulocytes, a hemoglobin level of 19 mg/dL, and a platelet count of 132/mm3. Chest X-ray revealed bilateral pulmonary edema. Since then, he has become progressively hypoxic and now requires intubation.

The best empiric coverage upon admission is which of the following?

corticosteroids
cefepime and levofloxacin
interferon
ceftriaxone and azithromycin
ribavirin

The patient has a febrile illness with rapid respiratory deterioration that requires intubation. His elevated hemoglobin level, low platelets, and recent contact with rodents in Arizona are highly suggestive of Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS). However, because this is only a presumptive diagnosis, the patient should be treated with empiric antibiotics. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin are a reasonable choice for community-acquired pneumonia, but this patient is also at risk for pseudomonas infection (he has bronchiectasis). In this circumstance, cefepime and levofloxacin may be a more appropriate treatment.

There is no specific treatment for HPS. Ribavirin, interferon, or corticosteroids are not indicated.

It is important to note that Andes and Sin Nombre viruses cause HPS in the Americas, whereas Hantaan, Seoul, and Puumala viruses cause hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HFRS) in Asia and Europe. HFRS is responsive to ribavirin.

References:

Bronchiectasis--diagnosis and treatment. Deutsches Ärzteblatt international. Rademacher, Jessica; Welte, Tobias. Published December 1, 2011.

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Hantavirus. Accessed November 15, 2013.

Sample Question 3

A 2-year-old girl brought in by her mother presents to you with limping after returning from a visit with her father. You obtain an x-ray (see Figure).

Figure.

What do these radiographic findings indicate?

spiral fracture, likely accidental
spiral fracture, suggestive of abuse
normal variant
vessel shadow

Educational Objective:

Recognize spiral fractures based on radiographic findings.

Key Point:

Spiral fractures of the distal tibia in a toddler are usually accidental.

Explanation:

A "toddler fracture" refers to a nondisplaced spiral fracture of the distal tibia found in a child between 9 months and 3 years of age. The classic distal fracture is often related to accidental trauma. By contrast, a midshaft fracture is suggestive of abuse. Obviously, the context of the injury is also important, because a distal fracture will not always be accidental and a proximal fracture will not always be secondary to abuse; however, it is helpful to understand this basic evidence-based rule.

Reference:

Halsey MF, Finzel KC, Carrion WV, Haralabatos SS, Gruber MA, Meinhard BP. Toddler's fracture: presumptive diagnosis and treatment. J Pediatr Orthop. 2001;21(2):152-156.

Heinrich SD, Mooney JF. Fractures of the shaft of the tibia and fibular. In: Wilkins KE, Beaty JH, eds. Rockwood and Wilkins' Fractures in Children. 4th ed., 2006:1033.

Sample Question 4

An 83-year-old man presents to you with new-onset vesicular rash around the right upper quadrant of his face that he tells you is very painful (see Figure).

Figure.

On examination, you note that the rash also appears on the tip of his nose. What is the significance of this finding?

This finding doubles the patient’s risk of possible vision loss.
This finding is an independent predictor for the presence of an autoimmune disorder.
About one-third of patients with this finding will also develop oral lesions.
This finding should prompt a thorough examination of the ear.

Educational Objective:

Discuss the association of a rash on the nose with the risk of possible vision loss.

Key Point:

This patient’s presentation is most consistent with herpes zoster (shingles), which is due to the reactivation of latent Varicella infection.

Explanation:

The lifetime risk of any reactivation (anywhere in the body) is approximately 10% to 20%. Nearly 1 in 3 Americans will develop shingles in their lifetime. This risk increases with age, as does the risk of postherpetic neuralgia. This risk is increased in people aged 50 years or older, and 10% to 25% of these cases specifically involve the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (herpes zoster ophthalmicus).

Despite its name, only one-third of patients with herpes zoster ophthalmicus will have ocular involvement (conjunctivitis, keratitis, uveitis), which can lead to blindness, corneal denervation, and long-term ocular inflammation. The rest will have an outbreak limited to the skin around the eye while the eye itself is spared.

Among patients with herpes zoster ophthalmicus, some will also have a herpes lesion on the tip of their nose. This signifies involvement of the nasociliary branch (innervates the tip of the nose) and is known as the Hutchinson sign. Patients with herpes zoster ophthalmicus and a Hutchinson sign have twice the incidence of ocular involvement as those without a Hutchinson sign.

Permanent sequelae of ophthalmic zoster infection with eye involvement may include long-term ocular inflammation, loss of vision, and debilitating pain. Antiviral medications, such as acyclovir, valacyclovir, and famciclovir, are the mainstay of therapy and are most effective in preventing ocular involvement when started within 72 hours after the onset of rash. Compared with acyclovir, famciclovir and valacyclovir have fewer adverse events and offer a more convenient dosing schedule. Timely diagnosis and management of herpes zoster ophthalmicus, with referral to an ophthalmologist when ophthalmic involvement is present, are critical in limiting visual morbidity.

The Hutchinson sign is not associated with oral lesions and is not an independent predictor of autoimmune disorders.

Ramsay-Hunt syndrome (herpes zoster oticus) occurs when shingles affects the facial nerve proximal to the ear. In addition to a painful shingles rash, Ramsay-Hunt syndrome can cause facial paralysis and hearing loss in the affected ear. The Hutchinson sign is not associated with herpes zoster oticus; thus, a specialized ear examination is unnecessary in patients with the Hutchinson sign.

References:

Carlislie R. Differential diagnosis of a swollen red eyelid. Am Fam Physician. 2015;92(2):106-112.

Johnson JL, Amzat R, Martin N. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus. Prim Care. 2015;42(3):285-303.

Walls R, et al, eds. Rosen's Emergency Medicine: Concepts and Clinical Practice. 9th ed., 2017.

Sample Question 5

A 19-year-old male has been actively seizing for the past 15 minutes. There is no history of seizures or trauma. Of the following, which is the most appropriate immediate intervention:

Following the first dose of lorazepam, give 20 mg/kg of phenytoin equivalents (PE) (either as phenytoin or fosphenytoin)
Give norcuron (Vecuronium) 0.1 mg/kg IV and 10 mg of diazepam
Order an electroencephalogram (EEG).
Immediate intubation and hyperventilation
Give one ampule of dextrose 50 gm IV

Supplemental oxygen, airway opening techniques, intravenous line, cardiac monitor, and assessment of serum glucose can all be started simultaneously. The first abortive medication should be a benzodiazepine (lorazepam, diazepam or midazolam, depending on availability and IV access). In addition, either phenytoin or fosphenytoin (the prodrug of phenytoin) should be given soon after benzodiazepine to the patient with a first time seizure who is in status epilepticus or to patients with seizures that are refractory to benzodiazepines.

A definitive airway may eventually be required in some patients, yet supportive airway maneuvers can be administered while addressing the priority of aborting the seizure activity.

Dextrose may be required only if finger-stick or serum glucose is low.

Muscle paralysis is to be avoided, unless absolutely necessary (as in refractory status with severe acidosis, requirement for ventilatory assistance, need for neuroimaging), and if so should preferably be with a rapid onset/short acting agent, such as rocuronium (Zemuron) 1 mg/kg IV. This patient will likely need an EEG, but not emergently, unless paralysis is necessary.

Status epilepticus is now defined as seizure activity for over 5 minutes without regaining consciousness. The older definition that based on 30 minutes of continuous seizure activity is now outdated.

Reference:

Duvivier EH, Pollack Jr CV. Seizures (Chapter 18), in Rosen’s Emergency Medicine, 8th edition, Concepts and Clinical Practice. Marx JA editor. 2014, Mosby (Elsevier)

Target Audience

Med-Challenger EM is intended for practitioners of acute and primary care or clinicians and registered nurses otherwise involved in the diagnosis and treatment of acute, emergent, or chronic medical problems.

Educational Objectives

After completing this activity, the participant should be better able to:

Confidently manage the broad spectrum of acute and chronic medical problems encountered in the practice of emergency medicine
Formulate appropriate differential diagnoses for patients presenting with acute and chronic medical problems of uncertain etiology.
Efficiently initiate therapeutic and diagnostic procedures for patients presenting with acute and chronic medical disorders.
Cope effectively with the uncertainty that is inherent in the initial treatment of acute and chronic disorders.
Handle efficiently the spectrum of common disorders involving all organ systems. In particular, the physician will be better equipped to resuscitate seriously ill patients and to diagnose and treat acute medical disorders.

Faculty

Andrea C. Eberly, MD, M.S., FAAEM

Mary Alice O'Brien, DNP, APRN, FNP-BC

Joint Accreditation Statement

In support of improving patient care, this activity has been planned and implemented by the Postgraduate Institute for Medicine and Challenger Corporation. Postgraduate Institute for Medicine is jointly accredited by the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education (ACCME), the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE), and the American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC), to provide continuing education for the healthcare team.

Designation Statement

AMA Credit - The Postgraduate Institute for Medicine designates this enduring material for a maximum of 258.0 AMA PRA Category 1 Credit(s)™. Physicians should claim only the credit commensurate with the extent of their participation in the activity.

ANCC Credit - The maximum number of hours awarded for this Continuing Nursing Education activity is 258.0 contact hours.

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Emergency Medicine MOC Exam Dates

About the Emergency Medicine ConCert Exam and ABEM MOC Requirements

Spring 2021
April 5-26

Registration
January 11 - March 18
$1,400 registration fee*

*The fee for those with certifications expiring in 2020, and those taking the exam to regain certification is $1,950.

Fall 2021
September 7-28

Registration
June 14 - August 19
$1,400 registration fee

Other Internal Medicine Exam Dates:

IM-ITE: August 19–September 8, 2021 (except September 6)

Other Internal Medicine Certification Requirements:

Knowledge Self-Assessment (KSA): Either complete KSA topic-based modules annually, or complete CKSA questions sets quarterly for one year.
Professionalism
Family Medicine CME
State CME

Information about the
ABEM ConCert™ Examination

Pass your ABEM boards with Med-Challenger

The ABEM ConCert™ Examination for ABEM continuing certification assesses knowledge, judgment, and skills of Emergency Medicine physicians. ABEM-certified physicians are required to pass the ABEM ConCert™ Examination - also referred to as the "ABEM Recertification Exam" or "ABEM MOC exam" - once in years six through ten of their certification as part of ABEM maintenance of certification (ABEM MOC).

The ABEM ConCert exam is administered during one week in the spring and fall each year at Pearson VUE testing centers around the United States and Canada.

The ABEM ConCert exam contains approximately 205 single-best-answer, standard multiple choice questions.

What is on the ABEM ConCert Exam?

What's in the ABEM ConCert Examination for ABEM MOC?

ABEM publishes a content blueprint of the material that will appear on the ConCert exam. This is how we determine which material appears in ABEM board exam simulations.

Cardiovascular Disorders10%
Traumatic Disorders10%
Signs, symptoms, presentations9%
Abdominal and Gastrointestinal Disorders8%
Thoracic-Respiratory Disorders8%
Procedures and Skills8%
Head, Ear, Eye, Nose and Throat Disorders5%
Nervous System Disorders5%
Systemic Infectious Disorders5%
Toxicologic Disorders5%
Obstetrics and Gynecology4%
Psychobehavioral Disorders4%
Environmental3%
Renal and Urogenital Disorders3%
Other Components3%
Musculoskeletal Disorders (Non-traumatic)3%
Endocrine, Metabolic & Nutritional Disorders 2%
Hematologic Disorders2%
Immune System Disorders2%
Cutaneous1%
TOTAL100%

Acuity Frames

Acuity Frames: Target (± 5%)

• Critical: 30%
• Emergent: 40%
• Lower Acuity: 21%
• None: 9%

Physician Tasks

For this dimension, the Board has assigned the following specific percentage weights to the Modifying Factor of age:

• Pediatrics: 8% minimum
• Geriatrics: 6% minimum

ABEM selects ConCert exam questions for emergency medicine MOC based on how closely they align with the EM Model, as seen in the ABEM MOC exam blueprint. While questions can originate from any content area within the model, some areas are routinely selected. The list above describes the relative weight given to different elements of the EM Model in constructing the ABEM ConCert exam.

What is the format of the ABEM ConCert Exam?

What's the ABEM MOC Exam format?

The ConCert™ Examination for ABEM continuing certification (i.e. ABEM recertification or ABEM MOC) is a proctored, high-stakes examination that covers the breadth of the clinical practice of Emergency Medicine. The exam contains approximately 205 single-best-answer, standard multiple choice questions. Each question is in paragraph form with an answer set containing one correct answer and three or four incorrect answers.

Each exam question has only one correct answer and each question is worth one point. Only one answer can be selected for each question and you should try to answer as many questions as possible. Each question answered correctly is counted in the total correct score. Unanswered questions are treated as incorrect. Incorrect answers do not count in the total correct score, nor is there a subtraction from the total correct score for incorrect answers.

After check-in, the test administrator will seat you in the testing room. Each ConCert™ Exam appointment is 5 hours and 15 minutes in length. However, only 4 hours and 15 minutes of this time is actual testing time, which is divided into two separately timed testing sessions. The first session lasts 2 hours and 5 minutes, and the second 2 hours and 10 minutes, with a 20-minute break between each section.

Your best strategy for completing the exam is to first complete the initial book, answering all questions with your initial best answer. Two reference documents are available during the examination: a list of common abbreviations used in the exam, and a list of normal laboratory values. You may flag questions you would like to return to for later review. The computer system facilitates this test-taking strategy by requiring one initial pass through an examination book before allowing you to select and go to a specific question in that examination book, in any desired order. Once an initial pass-through is completed, you may review all of the questions in that book in any order you choose before selecting the “End Review” button to finish the examination book. Once you exit an examination book by clicking on the “End Review” button, that section of the examination is completed, and you may not re-enter it.

Some questions are not scored and are used only to assure future question quality. These field test questions will not be apparent to the candidate. Including them on the exam allows ABEM to conduct research to determine if the questions are appropriate for scoring future examinations.

Approximately 1 hour of the appointment time is devoted to a 20-minute scheduled break between the two testing sessions, and several accessory activities related to the exam administration. These accessory activities include acceptance of the ABEM Policy on Examination Irregularities, an optional test tutorial, examination instructions, and a candidate survey

Each book of the examination consists of both pictorial and non-pictorial multiple choice questions. Pictorial questions refer to stimulus images such as photos of X-rays, ECGs, rhythm strips, pictures, etc. These images will be presented in a separate tab along with the relevant test question on the computer screen. CT scans may be used as stimuli but for views of the head only. Beginning with the fall 2019 exam, you may be required to interpret FAST exam and pericardial window ultrasound images. You'll see a wide variety of questions so a comprehensive EM MOC review Qbank is best.

The entire exam appointment takes approximately 5.25 hours to complete.

Before the exam do not forget to see the guidelines in the ABEM website.

ABEM ConCert exam review questions

ABEM provides several sample questions on its site. You can also start a free trial of Med-Challenger: ABEM MOC CONCERT EXAM REVIEW.

How to best prepare for the ABEM ConCert Exam

Study tips and tricks for passing the Emergency Medicine ConCert exam.

Recent Med-Challenger customer surveys indicate that residents spent, on average, 10 weeks preparing for the Emergency Medicine boards (written exam), and 5 weeks preparing for the oral exam. Pass rates were generally in the mid-90% and length of time had no correlation with a higher pass rate.

From the interviews, we also learned that there are a few key areas to focus on: Cardiovascular Disorders, Toxicology, and Traumatic disorders tended to show up more frequently. While there were few Ophthalmologic disorders, those questions tended to be a little more difficult. (However, the test does change, so pay careful attention to the percent distribution that the Board Writers publish). There will be questions that are not regularly found in day to day Emergency care. Pediatric rashes, recognition of specific stroke presentations, etc.

ABEM ConCert exam review guides

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Our emergency medicine boards study guide is full of tips, tricks, and valuable insight into the art of emergency medicine MOC exam prep and the inner-workings of the ABEM ConCert exam itself. After all, this is the only thing standing between you and your new career!

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