This week’s free board review question…
A 47-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance for mandibular pain and malocclusion after blunt trauma (see Figures 1 and 2).
Which of the following statements is correct?
Any fracture will most likely be through the right-sided body of the mandible.
Statistically, this patient has a 1% chance of associated cervical spine trauma.
The patient has signs of an alveolar fracture.
Bilateral temporomandibular joint (TMJ) tenderness may be an early sign of impending airway compromise.
Fracture of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) is more likely to result in long-term dysfunction in an adult than a child.
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