This week's free board review question...
A 20-year-old, gravida 1 para 0 woman presents to you at 42 weeks of gestation with complaints of contractions. You are able to rule out active labor, but you do recommend that the patient stay so that labor can be induced because she is post-term. She declines and she is adamant to wait until spontaneous labor ensues.
You review the guidelines from the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists for delivery by 42 weeks and 6 days of gestation and explain to her the risks of post-term pregnancy.
Which of the following statements is correct when discussing perinatal mortality risk in post-term pregnancies?
The risk of perinatal mortality at her gestational age is 1% of ongoing pregnancies.
The risk of stillbirth is twice as high at this gestational age than at term.
Asphyxia from shoulder dystocia during delivery of a macrosomic, post-term neonate accounts for most perinatal mortality.
The risk of stillbirth at 43 weeks of gestation is the same as it is at her current gestational age.
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